Does anyone know of a criminal sanction for intentionally violating a City Charter, but not a city ordinance?

Our concern is that City Charter may not fit the definition of "law" as per 1.07 TPC as it applies to official oppression and abuse of official capacity.

Thanks in advance.

Under that old Latin rule not only is City Charter not expressly included, municipal ordinance, which you say the charter is not, makes the list. So I doubt you can make a criminal case out of that definition. Have you asked criminal forum?

Thanks Ray. Yes I did get some feed back over the phone from my post on the criminal forum.

Civil case law seems to support the idea that a city charter is "law" as the charter is expressly authorized by the state constitution and by the Local Government Code.