Here's a hypothetical situation: stable owner rents stables to horse owners. Several horses are seized and horse owners are charged for cruelty. But problems of animal cruelty continue at stables. Stable owner seems to vanish whenever law enforcement investigates. Is stable owner guilty of anything? Feel free to reply to this hypo off-forum. Thanks in advance--JW

Depends on what his obligation is. If he justs rents the space and has no obligation to care for and feed the horses, I do not see how he could be held criminally responsible. If he obligates himself by an agreement with the horse owners to care for the horses, then he should be charged.

For all matters Equine, the expert in the State of Texas is Michael Fouts, Haskell County DA

I agree with Ken having had horses of my own on my property and also have boarded horses. Depends on the type of cruelty and the contract with the owners. I have boarded with stable that did all and have boarded where I was obligated to care for the horse.

I agree. It depends on the agreement between the owner and boarder. If the boarder is supposed to feed it, the boarder is responsible. It the stable is supposed to feed, the owner is responsible. I have been in the horse business a long time and have seen this happen over and over. It is not as easy as you think to deal with the people who don't take care of their horses. You start feeding other people's horses and you go broke in a hurry. This is why many stables only do "full care" anymore.