Increasingly, checks are created and printed out on a computer. The name of the account holder may be fictional or someone whose identity we cannot ascertain. Either way, how can we prove that the signature is "without the effective consent" of the person (or non-person) whose name is signed to the check? It looks like it leaves us no forgery charge, just a theft. Should it be charged as a theft if we cannot prove the element about the signature being another's without consent?
