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| Posts: 31 | Location: Denton, Texas | Registered: May 14, 2003 |
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| I think your question probably is answered by article 45.202 of the Code of Criminal Procedure. Section (a) of that article provides that "[a]ll process isssuing out of a municipal court may be served and shall be served when directed by the court, by a peace officer or marshall of the municipality within which it is situated, under the same rules as are provided by law for the service by sheriffs and constables of process issuing out of the justice court, so far as applicable." Thus, in a criminal case, I don't the a muncipal court is authorized to order a constable to serve its process.
That's not to say that a constable cannot serve municipal process. The Code of Criminal Procedure provision is couched in permissive terms, which would seem to indicate that it is not exclusive regarding who may serve municipal court process. It's a bit novel to me, given the history in my jurisdiction, that a constable might undertake any act other than suing the county for a higher salary.
Any fee the constable might charge would have to be set by the commissioners court under section 118.131 of the Local Government Code. The nifty part of all this is that the fee set by the commissioners court might be the county policy which the plaintiffs hang their hat on as the requisite "moving force" in a section 1983 lawsuit when the constable finally gets to use that gun he's been totin' while serving some of this process. Some dogs are better left sleeping. |
| Posts: 1233 | Location: Amarillo, Texas, USA | Registered: March 15, 2001 |
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