Hypothetically speaking: If you have an officer who has sex with an alleged victim of (another) crime that he was responding to, then what would you charge the officer with? If I can prove the sex is not consensual, then I know I have a sexual assault. However, if the sex looks consensual, then can I prove official oppression? Also, could there be any possible federal charges? Any help would be appreciated.

About a decade ago, I recall we had a case when I was in Fort Worth where a constable had sex while on duty. He was convicted of OO. (See case below) If your hypothetical victim was the victim of a serious crime, surely her judgment was clouded and she didn't really consent?

Hughbank v. S., 967-940 (2/98) (he was threatening to plant drugs if she did not acquiesce)

[This message was edited by John Stride on 04-28-06 at .]

[This message was edited by John Stride on 04-28-06 at .]