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OK, I think I can do this; can't I?

IN about 1924, land was deeded to the county for a school; later they added a little strip. In subsequent deeds (county to ISD to VFD to . . . )it is obvious that the intent was to deed the whole amount, but there is a little tag that a careful researcher could argue was not included. It is wholly landlocked, and has been used by the dominant land owner since about 1950.

Is there a problem doing a deed that basically says we don't thing we own it, we aren't interested in it, and we don't want to hear about it again?

THanks
 
Posts: 736 | Location: Sweetwater TX | Registered: January 30, 2001Reply With QuoteReport This Post
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Lisa
I don't see a problem especially if the Comm. Ct. finds that the conveyance was done to correct an error years ago. Perhaps a correction deed with quitclaim language in it would do the trick...
I would be comfortable with either as long as there was a finding by the Court, placed in the minutes, stating the reason they are taking action now.
But, what do I know!
 
Posts: 568 | Registered: November 14, 2002Reply With QuoteReport This Post
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Thank you! As you know, when you practice in the proverbial boonies, a little support really helps!
 
Posts: 736 | Location: Sweetwater TX | Registered: January 30, 2001Reply With QuoteReport This Post
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